Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 06:11
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Which document should be pointed out to a holocaust denier?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What exactly is female squirting? Is it only urine or a combination of liquids?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.